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Joined 3 years ago
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Cake day: June 15th, 2023

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  • barsoap@lemm.eeto196@lemmy.blahaj.zonerule
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    11 months ago

    No idea about Uhr but clock most likely dates back to the great wave of clocktower building, 14th century, when timekeeping became mainstream. In Low Saxon “[It is] one o’clock” is “[Dat is] Klock een”, also klock == bell as well as clock, “Uhr” and “hour” both come from French, ultimately PIE *yōr-ā which is also responsible for year. Clock apparently comes from Celtic, onomatopoetic formation.


  • barsoap@lemm.eeto196@lemmy.blahaj.zonerule
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    11 months ago

    Speaking of clocks, let me congratulate you on being one of the Germanic languages where “clock” and “bell” are the same word, as is proper.

    In Low Saxon nobody really knows the gender of anything any more because gender markers are basically extinct, noun gender is ever so subtly different from Standard German, and native proficiency jumped a generation. I’d really rather mark the objective case everywhere than make a distinction that only masculine nouns are marked. Having a similar evolutionary trajectory as English is all fine and good, they’re closely related languages, but forgetting about “whom”? Gods no.


  • barsoap@lemm.eeto196@lemmy.blahaj.zonerule
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    11 months ago

    Until you introduce whom (and, occasionally, whose) and native speakers’ brains explode. It’s soooo easy: Whose brain was exploded by whom? His brain was exploded by her, not He brain was exploded by she. Native English speakers do understand cases, they just don’t know that they understand.


  • barsoap@lemm.eeto196@lemmy.blahaj.zonerule
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    11 months ago

    but it all sort of collapsed in on itself and nouns basically sorted themselves into the two current categories at random depending on dialects and stuff.

    That’s how it started out in the first place! Indo-European noun classes don’t really have anything to do with gender, there just happens to be three and the words for “man”, “woman”, and “thing” are in distinct classes, so that’s what the classes get referred by. Otherwise it’s semi-random, that is, by phonology. Unless people disagree (it’s die Nutella btw).

    Classes are useful because they allow for concord between nouns and other parts of speech. The German the sentence “He holds a pen (Stift) and a bag (Tüte) and puts him on the table” unambiguously tells you that it’s the pen which is put on the table: Bag makes no sense because it’s feminine. There are rules as to how words are distributed into classes but no native speaker will be able to explain them short of the dead obvious. Not part of native-level German lessons, that’s literature and grammar analysis, not phonetics. Romanes ite domum.



  • Can you explain how what I said is racist? I was talking about cultural practices, societal organisation. The cultural differences I allude to are all rather well-established anthropology. Left-wing anthropology on top of that, Emmanuel Todd started that whole thing.

    On the flipside, can you explain how “the germanic skull is uniquely shaped in a way that maximizes both ignorance and arrogance.” isn’t? Can you show me those phrenological characteristics in this example? The man does speak better Low Saxon than me, that’s for sure, so obviously he’s more German, even more Saxon, than me.

    EDIT: As to your edit:

    Ridiculing these tirades usually result in a smug dismissal of the conversation while claiming victory or it angers the german causing it to respond with wishes or promises of harm.

    If that’s not straight-up projection I’d say pot calling the kettle black, don’t you think? Not even an tiny bit of smug dismissal in there?